Q: Was the blood of Christ shed for all people or only for those whom God knew would become believers?

A: This the question is sometimes called the question of limited or unlimited atonement. Romans 5:18 says, "Therefore as by the offence of one (Adam) judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one (Jesus Christ) the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life." 2 Corinthians 5:19 says, "To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."

The perfect sacrifice of Jesus Christ's shed blood was sufficient to cover all sins of all people for all time.

This is further confirmed in 2 Corinthians 5:14-15, where Paul writes, "... if one (Jesus Christ) died for all, then were all dead: And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again." Also in 1 Timothy 2:5-6 he writes, "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time."

For the perfect shed blood of Jesus Christ to be applied, one must have faith. In Philippians 3:8-9 Paul wrote, "... I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith ...." Christ's sacrifice will cleanse only those who believe that He died for our sins and rose again, but the sacrifice is available to all people for the sins of all people.

Q: Did we become sinners the first time we sinned or were we born sinners as a result of Adam's sin in the Garden of Eden?

A: Romans 5:12-19 is a helpful passage on this subject. Romans 5:12 says, "Wherefore, as by one man (Adam) sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned ...." 1 Corinthians 15:22 says, "For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive." Perhaps the most direct answer to this question comes from Romans 5:19 which says, "For as by one man's (Adam's) disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one (Jesus Christ) shall many be made righteous." This verse makes it very clear that we were all made to be sinners by Adam's sin. As Les Feldick often says, "We are not sinners because we sin. We sin, because we are sinners."

Here are a few old testament passages that speak to this point.

In asking God to cleanse him from sin, David wrote in Psalms 51:5, "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me."

Psalms 58:3 says, "The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies."

Speaking to "... O house of Jacob, which are called by the name of Israel ..." (Isaiah 48:1), God said in Isaiah 48:8, "... I knew that thou wouldest deal very treacherously, and wast called a transgressor from the womb."

Q: Are Christians supposed to keep the sabbath day?

A: Under the law of Moses, keeping the sabbath day was required of Israel (Exodus 20:8-11), and the punishment for violations was death by stoning (Numbers 15:32-36). But our Apostle Paul tells us that we, "... are not under the law, but under grace." Our doctrine in this present dispensation of grace is the teaching that our risen Lord Jesus Christ gave to us through our Apostle Paul in the 13 letters of Romans-Philemon. Paul never once tells us to keep the sabbath day. On the contrary, he clearly teaches that we do not have to keep the sabbath:

In Romans 14:5-6 he writes, "One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it ...."

Likewise Paul says in Colossians 2:16, "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days ...."

So keeping the sabbath day was a commandment for Israel, under the law. It is not a commandment for the church, which is under grace.

Q: During the tribulation, I understand that the church will have been raptured and the dispensation of the law will resume. But will it be like the law in the old testament, or will the adherents to the law know that Jesus Christ is the Messiah?

A: In the old testament under the law of Moses, Israel was always looking forward to the coming of their Messiah, who would redeem them, save them from their enemies, and set up His kingdom on earth forever. There were many prophecies in the old testament about the Messiah, but Israel still did not know that His name would be Jesus.

Likewise, during the seven year tribulation Israel will not know who their Messiah is. Those who are not among the elect will follow the Anti-Christ to their doom, but that is another topic. The believing Israelites will once again be keeping the law of Moses and looking forward to their Messiah coming. Even though they do not read that portion of scripture commonly called the "new testament", they will see all the terrible signs spoken of in the old testament and know that it is the "Day of the LORD" and that the arrival of the Messiah is very near. If you have read the article on The Seven Churches of Revelation , then you know that I teach that the churches in Revelation chapters 2 and 3 are not grace dispensation churches like those of today. Rather, they are assemblies of believing Israelites like those that will exist during the tribulation. Notice that in speaking to them in Revelation chapters 2 and 3, Jesus Christ never reveals His name. He always refers to Himself by some kind of phrase related to the Messiah. But He does not say that He is Jesus or that He died on the cross for them. That will be kept secret until the end of the tribulation..

After describing the battle of Armageddon, God says in Zechariah 12:10, "And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn." At the end of the seven year tribulation, God will fill all of the elect of Israel with the Holy Spirit. Then they will realize what their fathers did to the Messiah. The phrase, "whom they have pierced" refers to how Jesus Christ was run through with a spear after dying on the cross. Israel will also realize that their thousands of years of having been scattered, persecuted, and spiritually lost, was all due to their rejection of Jesus. The nation suffered because they had refused to accept the Messiah at His first coming.

Another key verse is in Zechariah 13. The first few verses let us know that this passage is talking about when Christ returns to set up His kingdom on the earth. Then Zechariah 13:6 says, "And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends." Certainly no one who knew that the Messiah was Jesus Christ would ask Him how He got those wounds in His hands. But when God pours out His Spirit upon them, they will realize who He is.

Q: Does the Bible say anything about cloning humans or animals?

A: I am not aware of anything in the Bible about cloning per say. However, as with most topics, the Bible does give us some guiding principles which we can apply to cloning and thereby determine whether it is within the will of God or not.

First, it seems quite presumptuous for man to say that life needs to begin in a different way than the natural way that God clearly intended.

Also, in humans, the child would have no chance of having both a biological father and biological mother, which the scriptures lay out as the blue-print for the family.

There also seems to be a concern here with union within a family. In the law that God gave to Israel, He forbade them from marrying a near relative (Luke 18:6-16). God knew what our modern day scientists have discovered. That is that birth defects and mutations are more common in marriages between near relatives. God wanted Israel to be special, and he gave them dietary, cleanliness, and other laws to help them be a healthier nation. Now I do not completely understand the cloning process, except that all the genetic material comes from one animal rather than two. Therefore cloning seems to be like an even closer union than a child produced from a near relative.

Also, the survival rate is very low, and the birth defect rate is very high among cloned animals. Therefore, it would seem to be both reckless and cruel to perform such a deadly procedure with humans.

That is quite a lot of negatives. So even though the Bible may not mention the topic of cloning specifically, I believe the guiding principles of the Bible are clearly opposed to it.

Q: By saying that God will or will not do something, or saying that certain parts of God's Word concern the Law of Moses and certain parts of God's Word concern the Grace age, aren't you really "putting God in a box"?

A: When studying God's Word, Bible students regularly come to basic conclusions such as the following:

Christians are not under law, but under grace.
At some future time, God will bring a seven year period of tribulation upon the earth.
All of those who die having not believed the gospel will suffer eternal torment.

These are just a few examples. The point I am making is that God reveals some basic facts in His Word, which we can know with certainty, because God has revealed it. It is not that anyone is trying to "put God in a box" to restrict what He does. It is just a matter of believing what God has said.

Some may accuse those who separate law from grace of "putting God in a box", putting limits on God. They may say, "I believe the whole truth of the Bible, with no limits on what God can do." The problem with that statement is, that the whole truth IS LIMITED. It is not limited by what God can do of course, for He is all-powerful. But it is limited by what God has said in His Word. If we ignore the limits that God Himself has set, then we cannot say that we believe the whole truth of God's Word. And we all know that "... without faith it is impossible to please him ...." (Hebrews 11:6).

Similarly, some may argue the point this way, "I believe that the Bible is the Word of God concerning us all." We should rather believe the Bible concerns whomever God says it concerns. He is the One who we should allow to make that call.

Q: What does the Bible tell us that our government should do in regard to capital punishment?

A: As explained in the article Basics of Understanding the Bible, God has set forth different rules for different groups of people in different time periods. Not only may the rules be different, but the punishment for not keeping the rules may be different. Capital punishment is a prime example.

For instance, when Adam and Eve were in the Garden of Eden, there was no capital punishment for murder. For that matter there was no sin at all for which to be punished. On top of that, there was no death at all, since the fall of man had not yet happened.

But then a few years after Adam and Eve were expelled from the Garden of Eden, Cain, their son, murdered his brother, Abel (Genesis 4:8-15). Yet still, there was no capital punishment for Cain. God had not yet allowed it. Furthermore, God put a mark on Cain so that no one would kill him.

But God changed things just after the great flood, God instituted capital punishment for murder. This is recorded in Genesis 9:5-6 where God told Noah and his sons, "And surely your blood of your lives will I require; at the hand of every beast will I require it, and at the hand of man; at the hand of every man's brother will I require the life of man. Whoso sheddeth man's blood, by man shall his blood be shed: for in the image of God made he man.."

Then, around 1450 BC, God gave the law of Moses to the nation of Israel. Under the law of Moses, Israel was to administer capital punishment by stoning, not only for the crime of murder, but also for certain other crimes such as working on the sabbath (Numbers 15:32-36), worshipping idols, committing adultery (Leviticus 20:10), committing homosexual acts (Leviticus 20:13), and consulting spirit mediums (Leviticus 20:27 and 1 Chronicles 10:13).

Meanwhile, the rest of the world, the Gentiles, remained under the commandment which God gave to Noah in Genesis 9:5-6 above. And being that we are not under the law of Moses today, we are still to keep the Genesis 9:5-6 commandment.

The Bible makes no distinction between first and second degree murder. To say it another way, the Bible makes no distinction between premeditated murder and murder that was committed at the spur of the moment with very little forethought. All that matters is whether there was intent to kill or cause harm that was not in self defense or defense of others. All murder is punishable by death.

The Bible does however distinguish between murder and manslaughter. That is, it distinguishes between intentional killing and killing that occurs due to accidental carelessness. Under the law of Moses, one who committed manslaughter could flee to a city of refuge to escape the vengeance of the victim's family (Numbers 35:10-34). If the family brought charges to the leaders of the city of refuge, the man who fled would be tried and judged by the congregation of the city. If the killing took place by accident, with no intent to do harm, the manslayer would not be put to death.

During this present age of grace, all murderers should be punished by death, regardless of whether their murder was in first or second degree.

The Apostle Paul confirms this in Romans 13:3-4 when he says, "For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same: For he (the ruler) is the minister of God to thee for good. But if thou do that which is evil, be afraid; for he beareth not the sword in vain: for he is the minister of God, a revenger to execute wrath upon him that doeth evil."

Now what is a sword used for? It certainly is not for paddling someone's backside. It is used to execute God's wrath by capital punishment.

Q: Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John each record an account of a woman anointing Jesus, either on the feet or head. But the details of the accounts do not seem to agree with one another. How does a careful Bible student reconcile these differences?

A: I am glad to see that you are a careful reader. Most people never even notice the differences. I must have heard a dozen sermons and Sunday school lessons on those passages, with no mention of the differences. But actually, the four accounts describe three completely separate events.

The first of the three events takes place in the early part of Christ's earthly ministry and is recorded in Luke 7:36-50. It happens at the house of Simon the Pharisee, in one of the cities in the Galilee area of northern Israel, probably in the city of Capernaum. In this event, and unnamed woman anoints the feet of Jesus with ointment and tears. Also, Jesus tells the parable of two debtors.

The second event is a long time later, shortly before the crucifixion, only six days before the passover. It is recorded in John 12:1-8, and happens at a supper with Mary, Martha, and Lazarus at Bethany, which is very near Jerusalem to the southeast. In this event, Mary pours precious ointment on the feet of Jesus and wipes it with her hair.

The third event takes place within the next three or four days. It is also at Bethany, but at a different supper in the house of Simon the Leper. It is recorded in Matthew 26:6-13 and in Mark 14:3-9. In this event, an unnamed woman pours precious ointment on the head of Jesus.

So in each case, not only are the details of the events different, but the location and the time are also different. So while there are some similarities, careful comparison shows that these are clearly three separate events.

Q: What are the narrow gate and the wide gate of which Jesus spoke?

A: When Jesus spoke those words, He was speaking to those who were under the law of Moses. However, the same concept of the narrow gate and the wide gate still applies today in this present dispensation of grace.

The narrow gate is the gate through which all those who truly believe the gospel pass to eternal life. The gospel is that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, freely gave His life on the cross to pay for our sins, and He rose from the dead on the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4). If we truly believe that, then God will count our sin debt as having been paid, and we will have eternal life.

The wide gate is the gate to destruction through which everyone else passes. All of the unbelievers will pass through the wide gate. This includes those who deny that God exists, the agnostics, and those of religions that worship other gods. But it also includes all of those who call themselves Christians but believe they will be saved by their good works rather than by God's grace through faith in the gospel. Unfortunately, this is where most of the people who say they are Christians are today. They are headed for the wide gate.

I once heard a non-denominational Bible teacher tell of a discussion with a man who had placed his faith in the teachings of a very large denomination. The man had asked the teacher about Matthew 7:13-14, which says, "Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat: Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it."

The teacher then asked the man, "Is your denomination many or few?" The man replied, "Many." So the teacher said, "Then what does this passage tell you?" Realizing the truth of the passage, the man replied, "They are headed for destruction."

Q: In referencing years, what do "BC" and "AD" mean?

BC stands for "before Christ", and it refers to the years before Jesus Christ was born. Many people think AD stands for "after death", and therefore refers to the years after the crucifixion of Jesus Christ. But AD actually stands for "anno domini", a Latin phrase that means "the year of our Lord". It is intended to be counted from the birth of Jesus Christ. There is no "year 0". So when counting forward from 2 BC, one should count "2 BC, 1 BC, 1 AD, 2 AD ..." and so on. However, this method of numbering years was not used until a few hundred years after Christ. Some people tried to look back and determine how long it had been since Christ was born. Once they settled upon a year, they named that year 1 AD, and named every other year with respect to that year. With the information we now know, it appears that they may have missed it by a few years. We know the Bible says Jesus Christ was born before the death of Herod the Great, who commonly is recorded in secular history as having died in 4 BC. IF that is correct, then Jesus Christ was born around the year we call 6 BC, give or take a year or two. However, there is at least some degree of disagreement over the 4 BC date for Herod's death. So we cannot say with certainty just when Jesus Christ was born.

As for the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, we have more detailed information on the timing. He was crucified most likely in 32 AD, but possibly 31 AD or 33 AD.

Q: During the global flood in the days of Noah, were the fish and other aquatic life protected aboard the ark?

A: Genesis 7:21-23 says, "And all flesh died that moved upon the earth, both of fowl, and of cattle, and of beast, and of every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth, and every man: All in whose nostrils was the breath of life, of all that was in the dry land, died. And every living substance was destroyed which was upon the face of the ground, both man, and cattle, and the creeping things, and the fowl of the heaven; and they were destroyed from the earth: and Noah only remained alive, and they that were with him in the ark."

Notice that every living thing on "upon the face of the ground" including the birds were killed. This passage also says "... in whose nostrils was the breath of life, of all that was in the dry land, died." This seems to exclude marine life, since they are not of the dry land, nor do they breath through nostrils. As for whales and dolphins, even if one were to count their blow-hole as a nostril, they still do not live "upon the face of the ground". Also, Genesis 7:14-15 does not seem to include marine life. Therefore, it appears that the fish and other aquatic life were left in the waters, and that great number of the species were able to survive the flood.

It is possible that the tremendous stress of this event resulted in the extinction of many aquatic species, or perhaps God may have protected them from extinction. Whatever the case, it seems clear that those aquatic species did not have any representatives aboard the ark.

Now some might question whether the different species could survive the salinity levels of the water during the flood. But it is difficult to say what the salinity levels of the ocean would have been just before, during, and just after the flood. We must also realize that species adapt to changes in their environments to survive. Some aquatic species today are very specialized, and sensitive to changes in salinity. But that does not mean that their ancestors thousands of years ago were. Other aquatic species today, like the salmon, go from fresh water to salt water and back again with no problem. Another example is the schools of fresh-water black-belt cichlids in Central America which can move from one river system to the next by swimming a few miles through the ocean in the salt water along the coastline. So the ancestors of today's fish and other aquatic life survived the flood outside of the ark.

Q: Does the doctrine of the Trinity or Triune Godhead come from the Bible?

A: The Triune Godhead (or "Trinity") is a term used in reference to the concept of God existing as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit which are one God. The Holy Spirit is also sometimes called simply "the Spirit" or "the Holy Ghost", and is the Spirit of God. Jesus Christ is, of course, the Son, and is God in the flesh. Even though the words "Trinity" and "Triune Godhead" do not occur in the Bible text, this concept of God existing as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit appears in several places in the Bible. For example, seven passages are quoted below in which the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are each referred to separately in the same brief passage:

Matthew 3:16 "And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."

Matthew 28:19 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost ...."

Acts 7:55 "But he (Stephen), being full of the Holy Ghost, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God ...."

2 Corinthians 1:21-22 "Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God; Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts."

Ephesians 2:18 "For through him (Jesus Christ) we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father."

1 Peter 1:2 "Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto the obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you and peace, be multiplied."

Jude 20-21 "But ye, beloved, building up yourselves on most holy faith, praying in the Holy Ghost, Keep yourselves in the love of God, looking for the mercy of our Lord Jesus Christ unto eternal life."

One of the many verses often used to support the doctrine of the Trinity or Triune Godhead is 1 John 5:7. This verse does not appear in most of the Greek manuscripts, and it appears to have been added by the translators. But as we have seen above, there are many verses which list each of the three members of the Triune Godhead. So the doctrine of the Triune Godhead is not dependent upon any one particular verse.

Besides these verses, the concept of Jesus Christ, the Son, being fully God as the Father is fully God is overwhelmingly obvious from the vast number of passages making this point. These are documented in the article Jesus Christ: Almighty God .

So whether you prefer to call it the Trinity or the Triune Godhead or whether you just recognize that God exists as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit which are one God, the concept is the same, and it is scriptural.

Q: Where does America fit into the prophecies of the end times?

A: Many Bible students have noticed the apparent absence of the United States from the Bible prophecies about the future tribulation. Europe, Russia, and the kingdoms of the far east are all mentioned as playing major roles in the tribulation events, but the United States does not appear to be specifically mentioned anywhere in scripture. As a result, many Bible students believe that something prior to or near the beginning of the tribulation must take place that will cause the United States to decline out of its present super-power status, to that of a weaker, less significant nation. I doubt there is any way we can know with any certainty until it actually happens, because of the shortage of scripture references. However, there are several ways that this could happen.

(1.) One possibility would be a collapse of the economy of the United States. This could conceivably occur as a result of war, terrorism, poor leadership, or anything else that could result in an economic depression.

(2) Another possibility is that a nuclear war could cripple the United States militarily and otherwise. Ezekiel chapters 38-39 describe how there will be a great attack on the nation of Israel. The attack is likely to occur early in the tribulation, at the second seal, the red horse of Revelation chapter 6. (For details of tribulation, including the second seal, see The Tribulation: Israel's Seventieth Week .) This attack will involve a coalition of nations led by Magog (Russia). When they attack Israel, God says in Ezekiel 39:6, "I will send a fire on Magog, and them that dwell carelessly in the Isles ...." The phrase, "them that dwell carelessly in the Isles" may be a reference to the United States. Militarily, it does seem like a possible scenario, a nuclear war involving Russia and the United States, triggered by a Russian led, all-out invasion of the Middle East.

(3) A third possibility is that the rapture of the church, which will occur before the tribulation, could remove enough people in key positions to greatly weaken the United States, due to the loss of the expertise at those key positions. I tend to think this is not very likely, because I do not think the percentage of true believers in this country is nearly as high as is commonly thought.

(4) Another possibility is much like the third possibility, but looking at more of a long term effect. The presence of the true believers in America is one of the few things that slows the degradation of the overall character of America. The presence of the church has an effect on politics, economics, the media, et cetera. In a country where most elections and votes on legislation are very close, hinging upon a small percentage of swing voters, the removal of a significant constituency from the side of the good, along with our influence, would have a very large impact. Thus, the removal of the church at the rapture may result in America moving from its present gradual moral decline into an headlong dive into outright depravity, which would in turn weaken America and its influence upon world events.

(5) One other possible reason why America may lose its present super-power status may be found in Genesis 12:1-3, "Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee: And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed." One of the main reasons that America is so blessed is that this country has been the primary ally of the nation of Israel. If in its moral decline, America ceases to be a friend of Israel, or even begins to oppose Israel, America will fall out of God's blessing. This could either take place prior to the rapture of the church or after the rapture, as a result of it.

But as I stated at the beginning, we simply do not know how this will play out, because the Bible does not provide much detail on this specific question.

Q: When Peter said in Acts 15 that he was saved through grace, does that mean that he was not saved under the kingdom gospel?

A: That is a very good question, but no, that is not what Peter is saying. Peter said in Acts 15:11, "But we (Jews) believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they (Gentiles)."

Note that Peter did not say that he was not saved though the gospel of the kingdom. Nor did Peter say that he was saved though the gospel of grace. Nor did he say he was saved through faith alone. He said that he was saved through God's grace. This is true because everyone ever saved was saved or will be saved through God's grace. That is because none of us can be worthy of salvation regardless of what we do. Even though Israel was commanded to keep the law of Moses, still they could not be saved without God shedding forth His mercy. So we see that Peter's statement is not an expression of which gospel he was saved under, nor is it an expression of which dispensation he is under. It is an expression of how God extends his unmerited favor to everyone who is ever saved.

Peter was saved through the gospel of the kingdom, and was under the dispensation of the law/kingdom, not under the dispensation of grace which our Lord Jesus Christ committed to Paul.

Q: Is the letter of James written to Jewish assemblies or to the church?

A: James 1:1 says, "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting." The twelve tribes are, without question, the twelve tribes of Israel. So this letter from James has to be understood in that context, of being written to the nation of Israel (the Jews), and not to the present grace dispensation church which is composed mostly of Gentiles.

Another reason we that know that James was writing to Jewish assemblies is found in James 2:2 which says, "For if there come unto your assembly a man with a gold ring, in goodly apparel, and there come in also a poor man in vile raiment ...." The word "assembly" in this verse is translated from the Greek word "sunagoge", which means and is almost always translated as "synagogue", a Jewish assembly. In its 57 occurrences in the new testament, "sunagoge" is never used in reference to a grace dispensation church or to any assembly of Gentiles. Nor is "sunagoge" ever used in any of Paul's 13 letters to the Gentiles (Romans-Philemon). So this is another very clear indication that the epistle of James was written to assemblies of Jews.

Also keep in mind that in Galatians 2:7-9, James (along with Peter and John) agreed to only teach the Jews, as they had been doing. "... when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision (Gentiles) was committed unto me (Paul), as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:) And when James, Cephas (Peter), and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen (Gentiles), and they unto the circumcision (Jews)." This same meeting which Paul in Galatians 2:1-10 is also described by Luke in Acts 15:1-29, where James, as the leader of the assembly in Jerusalem decreed that the Gentiles do not have to keep the law of Moses. But it is important to note that the Jews in Israel were still keeping the law of Moses and were not told otherwise. Thus we see that in Acts 21:20, which is 25 years or so after the crucifixion of Christ, James tells Paul, "... Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law."

Finally, in James 2:26, he told the Jews that, "... by works a man is justified, and not by faith only." Contrast that with the teaching of Paul, the Apostle of the Gentiles. Paul taught the Gentiles and the Jews which were scattered among them in Romans 4:4, "But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness." The rest of Romans chapter 4 expounds upon this thought. This is God's teaching to us from "the apostle of the Gentiles" (Romans 11:13). The message of James and the message of Paul would contradict one another if it were not for the fact that these messages were written to two totally separate audiences, one under the law of Moses and the other under grace. Paul tells us in Romans 6:14, "... for ye are not under law, but under grace ...."

Q: How can we know which rules we are to follow from previous dispensations and which ones no longer apply to us in this grace dispensation?

A: We are to follow the instructions that were given to us in this present dispensation of grace, which God gave to us through our apostle Paul in his letters to the mostly Gentile churches, Romans-Philemon. In Romans 11:13 Paul wrote, "For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office ...." In his epistles, Paul repeats many of the major points from other dispenations, which we should follow. For example, in Romans 13:9 he wrote, "... Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself." This reiterates several of the ten commandments from Exodus 20, and the commandment, "thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself", is from Leviticus 19:18.

On the other hand, many of the instructions from other dispenations are not mentioned in Paul's epistles, such as tithing, animal sacrifice, and many ancient Jewish rituals and feasts. Those instructions were never given to us.

When comparing any old testament teaching with things taught by Paul, the old testament things generally fall into one of three categories:

(a) things that differ from the doctrines that Paul gave to the church,
(b) things that are reiterated in the doctrines that Paul gave to the church, and
(c) things that may not have been reiterated but are the same in principle as what the church has been taught by Paul or are not in any sort of disagreement with things taught by Paul.

So we can't say that just because Moses said it in Exodus or Jesus said it in Luke that it is not applicable to the church. We have to examine it to see how it compares with what our risen Lord Jesus Christ gave to Paul for us and see which of these categories it is in.

The Dispensational Guidelines article provides a concise list of key guidelines for dispensational study of the Bible. These guidelines are useful for determining the dispensation of almost any Bible passage. The article also includes a diagram which illustrates the timeline of the dispensations.

Q: In order to gain a good understanding of God's Word, is it really necessary to understand the dispensations of the Bible?

A: Absolutely. Otherwise, it would be a bit like a math student saying, "I want to learn algebra, trigonometry, and calculus, but I don't believe I need to learn how to divide first." It just won't work. Most of the more difficult math problems do require some division calculations within them. Occasionaly, one might come across a simple algebra problem that, by chance, does not require that one know how to divide. But with most math questions, if we don't know how to divide correctly, we won't be able to get the correct answer.

Similarly, Bible students must learn how to rightly divide the Word of God, distinguishing between the different dispensations, if we are to find the correct answers to most of our Biblical questions. If we do not rightly divide, we might occasionally get a particular doctrine right. But more often than not, we will either incorrectly mix doctines from different dispensations together, or get our doctrine from the wrong dispensation entirely.

In 2 Timothy 2:15 Paul writes, "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." Rightly dividing the Word of God is a fundamental skill that needs to be mastered in order to properly understand the higher level truths of scriptural.

Please see the article, The Basics of Understanding the Bible, which provides an introduction to proper understanding of the dispensations, which is very helpful in avoiding confusion in Bible study.

Q: What does the Bible say about Christians taking vengeance upon those who do us wrong?

A: Paul wrote in Romans 12:17-19, "Recompense to no man evil for evil. Provide things honest in the sight of all men. If it be possible, as much as lieth in you, live peaceably with all men. Dearly beloved, avenge not yourselves, but rather give place unto wrath: for it is written, Vengeance is mine; I will repay, saith the Lord." That is pretty straight-forward. Avenge not yourselves. Let the Lord handle it. Vengeance belongs to Him. He is the perfect Judge and will repay accordingly and justly.

When verse 19 says "for it is written", it appears to be a reference to Deuteronomy 32:34-35. There, the Lord says that the evil deeds of His enemies have not gone unnoticed and are not forgotten. "Is not this laid up in store with me, and sealed up among my treasures? To me belongeth vengeance, and recompence; their foot shall slide in due time: for the day of their calamity is at hand, and the things that shall come upon them make haste."

Paul continues verses Romans 12:20-21, "Therefore if thine enemy hunger, feed him; if he thirst, give him drink: for in so doing thou shalt heap coals of fire on his head. Be not overcome of evil, but overcome evil with good." Note that in the ancient middle east, it was customary for those who were ashamed of their sin or in great mourning or dispair to take ashes from the fire and throw them up into the air upon their own head. So Paul's reference to "heap coals of fire on his head" probably refers to making your enemy feel ashamed and sorrowful for mistreating you by returning kindness instead of revenge.

Paul briefly mentions this same concept in 1 Thessalonians 5:15, "See that none render evil for evil unto any man; but ever follow that which is good, both among yourselves, and to all men." Note that he tells us this applies both "among yourselves" (among believers) and "to all men" (to our dealings with non-believers).

In 1 Peter 3:8-9, the believing Jews are instructed similarly regarding the treatment of fellow believers. "Finally, be ye all of one mind, having compassion one of another, love as brethren, be pitiful, be courteous: Not rendering evil for evil, or railing for railing: but contrariwise blessing; knowing that ye are thereunto called, that ye should inherit a blessing."

In 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9, Paul tells how at least part of the Lord's vengeance will be carried out, "... the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power ...." For a detailed study of the vengeance that the Lord will bring upon the world in the end times, see The Tribulation: Israel's Seventieth Week.

So what is for the believer to do? Nothing. Give space for the wrath of the Lord.

Q: In Genesis 4:7, God tells Cain, "... if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him." What does this mean?

A: First let's look at some background to this verse. Genesis 4:3-5 says, "And in process of time it came to pass, that Cain brought of the fruit of the ground an offering unto the LORD. And Abel, he also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of the fat thereof. And the LORD had respect unto Abel and to his offering: But unto Cain and to his offering he had not respect. And Cain was very wroth, and his countenance fell." Note that Able brought a blood sacrifice, an animal from his flock, but Cain brought a blood-less sacrifice. God did not respect Cain's blood-less sacrifice.

In Genesis 4:6-7, God said to Cain, "... Why art thou wroth? and why is thy countenance fallen? If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him."

Note how the word "sin" is spoken of using the pronouns "his" and "him" as though it were a living being. The Hebrew word "chatta'ah", which is translated as "sin" in verse 7, is used many times in the old testament to refer to "sin" but also many times to refer to the "sin offering". The sin offering was usually some type of clean animal offered as a blood sacrifice. For example see Exodus 29:36, where "chatta'ah" is translated "sin offering", referring to a bullock, "And thou shalt offer every day a bullock for a sin offering (chatta'ah) for atonement: and thou shalt cleanse the altar, when thou hast made an atonement for it, and thou shalt anoint it, to sanctify it." Also Leviticus 4:24, where "chatta'ah" is translated "sin offering", referring to a goat, "And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the goat, and kill it in the place where they kill the burnt offering before the LORD: it is a sin offering (chatta'ah)."

So it apprears that in Genesis 4:7, God is telling Cain that He (God) will provide Cain the needed blood sacrifice by having a "chatta'ah", whether it be a goat or lamb or bullock or whatever, come and lie at Cain's door. I think God is telling Cain that the animal will freely come to Cain and submit to Cain, "... unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him." All Cain had to do was kill the animal and sacrifice it to God. But the verses that follow record that Cain's pride and jealousy would not even allow him to take this easy road. Instead of following God's direction, he murdered his brother.

Q: Does the Bible say that the Apostle John would not die before the Lord's return?

A: The Bible does not say that John would not die before the Lord's return, although many believers at that time thought that he would not.

In John 21:18, Jesus said to Peter, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, When thou wast young, thou girdedst thyself, and walkedst whither thou wouldest: but when thou shalt be old, thou shalt stretch forth thy hands, and another shall gird thee, and carry thee whither thou wouldest not." John wrote and explained in verse 19 that, "This spake he (Jesus), signifying by what death he (Peter) should glorify God. And when he (Jesus) had spoken this, he (Jesus) saith unto him (Peter), Follow me."

John 21:20-21 says, "Then Peter, turning about, seeth the disciple whom Jesus loved (John) following; which also leaned on his breast at supper, and said, Lord, which is he that betrayeth thee? Peter seeing him saith to Jesus, Lord, and what shall this man do?" In verse 22, "Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me."

Then John 21:23 continues, "Then went this saying abroad among the brethren, that that disciple should not die: yet Jesus said not unto him, He shall not die; but, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee?"" So John attempted to correct the mistaken rumor that he would not die, clarifying that Christ said it as a question with an "if". Even so, when the Son of God makes such reply, it should make Bible students wonder whether He has something very special in mind for John.

Now let us look back at a previous account in Luke 9:27 when Jesus said to the disciples, "But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God." This passage occurs just before passage that gives the account of Christ's transfiguration, which was witnessed by Peter, James, and John. Thus, many consider the transfiguration to be the fulfillment of Luke 9:27. But note that Christ's question in John 21:22, "... If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? ...", occurred after the Christ's resurrection, much later than the transfiguration event of Luke 9, suggesting that Jesus still had something else in mind. Consider another possibility:

Now let's carefully look again at Luke 9:27, where Jesus said, "... there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God." Unlike the word "some" in the English language which implies plurality, the Greek word "tis" that is translated "some" in Luke 9:27 does not imply plurality. In fact, "a certain one" is one definition for that Greek Word. So Jesus may have been referring to how John in particular would "see the kingdom of God." Consider the visions that John saw before he wrote the book of Revelation

Jesus Christ will return from Heaven on a white horse and slay the armies of all the nations with the sword of His mouth (the Word of God) at the battle of Armageddon. In Revelation 19:11-16 John describes what he saw, "And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean. And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God. And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS." Then the kingdom is described in the latter chapters of Revelation.

So Luke 9:27 may in fact be a reference to how the visions in the book of Revelation, including the second coming and the kingdom, would be revealed to John before his death. Likewise, Christ's response to Peter in John 21:22 may also have been with this in mind.

Q: What is meant by a "week" in Daniel 9, or a "week of years" as some Bible teachers refer to it?

A: The Hebrew word that is translated as "week" and "weeks" in the prophecy of Daniel 9:24-27 is "shabuwa". A shabuwa means a "period of seven". It could be seven days or seven years. In scripture, it is used both ways, and we have to tell by the context which one it is. Often, shabuwa is used in scripture to describe the length of a feast or some other event that obviously is only a matter of days in length. But sometimes a shabuwa clearly means seven years, such as in Genesis 29:27-28. After Jacob was given Leah, in place of Rachel, for a wife after serving Laban for seven years, Laban told him. "27 Fulfil her week (shabuwa), and we will give thee this also for the service which thou shalt serve with me yet seven other years. 28 And Jacob did so, and fulfilled her week (shabuwa): and he gave him Rachel his daughter to wife also." Like in Genesis 29, shabuwa is used in Daniel 9 to refer to periods of seven years (not days). Some Bible teachers refer to these time periods as "weeks of years".

Q: Why does God love Israel so?

A: God said to the nation of Israel in Deuteronomy 7:6-9, " For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen thee to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth. The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people: But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt. Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations ...."

So God explained that it is not due to characteristics which Israel possessed, but due to the oath which He swore to their fathers (Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob).

Continuing in Deuteronomy 7:12-13, "Wherefore it shall come to pass, if ye hearken to these judgments, and keep, and do them, that the LORD thy God shall keep unto thee the covenant and the mercy which he sware unto thy fathers: And he will love thee, and bless thee, and multiply thee: he will also bless the fruit of thy womb, and the fruit of thy land, thy corn, and thy wine, and thine oil, the increase of thy kine, and the flocks of thy sheep, in the land which he sware unto thy fathers to give thee."

Now one may be wondering, has not Israel broken the covenant? As to this, I refer the reader to Zechariah 13:9 where God, describing the future tribulation period, says, "And I will bring the third part (one third of Israel) through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God."

Also, well after the crucifixion of Jesus and the stoning of Stephen, our Apostle Paul confirmed the Deuteronomy 7 passage above when he wrote in Romans 11:28, "As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes." This is once again a reference to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, to whom God swore the oath.

For deeper understanding of God's promises to Israel's fathers, see the articles God will yet choose Israel and The Tribes of Israel.

Q: Why did Jesus say that the least in the kingdom of God will be greater than John the Baptist?

A: Jesus said in Matthew 11:11, "Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he."

Likewise in Luke 7:28, "For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he."

The key to this somewhat puzzling statement by Jesus lies in the expression "born of women". All people are "born of women". That is, born of the flesh, not of the Spirit.

In John 3:5-6 Jesus said to Nicodemus, "... Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."

So every person in the kingdom of God will be born of the Spirit. However, at the time Jesus was speaking, no one had yet been born of the Spirit. That would not begin until after the Lord's crucifixion and resurrection, once the sin debt had been paid.

The largest rebirth for Israel will occur after the end of the future seven-year tribution. God foretold in Jeremiah 31:31-34, "Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."

1 Peter 1:23 also draws the distinction between the two births, referring to believers as, "Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever."

John the Baptist was able to be the greatest born of the flesh. But the presence of the Holy Spirit dwelling within one who is in the kingdom of God makes that person greater than anyone who is simply born of the flesh.

Q: Was Eve made from a rib taken out of Adam?

A: Genesis 2:21-23 says, "And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof; And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man." (KJV)

The Hebrew word translated "rib" in verses 21 and 22 is most often translated as "side" and second most often translated as "chamber". So I can see how some may disagree as to exactly what it was that was removed from Adam. From Adam's words in verse 23, it seems clear that whatever was removed from him to make the woman included both bone and flesh. So a rib would meet those requirements, and a rib is on the "side" of the body. Also, it appears that the vast majority of other English translations say "rib" as well.